Why would 2nd file when 1st already has

The first lender filed back in Sept and already has a sales date set for April. The 2nd just filed this month.
Why would they do that? They already knew that the 1st had filed 4 months ago. Negative equity on this house. So what if/ any is their strategy?

Well, this is just speculation, but given that the first apparently hasn’t been that hot to complete foreclosure maybe the second is hoping that their foreclosure will complete first, or perhaps your analysis is wrong, there is equity, and the second is hoping to recoup more of their money than a $1K. Or maybe, just perhaps, somebody has a wild hare up there fundament and just thinks this is a good idea.

That’s all I have. Hopefully someone else can do better.

Start with a heap of mortgage fraud and then mix in a little winter vandalism and trust me there is abosolutely no equity here. Not a dime for the 1st or 2nd.
That’s an interesting thought that the 2nd hopes to complete the foreclosure 1st. I was under the impression that no matter who filed first the 1st gets payed first up to the amount it has sued for. The 2nd is with HSBC which I have read are difficult to settle with. Meaning they would rather take it to auction than accept 1K.
In my state it takes 6+ months to go to auction from initial filing