Could you explain why you use the figure of $40,000 for ALL properties over $140,000 and why you use the figure of $140,000 as the cut off for using the 70% figure. Just curious. TIA
I’m heading out to look at a couple houses today and just got off the phone with a HM Lender. Here’s what they offer - instant loan (hours) - 18% - for 6 months - 10% down - interest only payments - no prepay penalty - plus other fees (didn’t get that fully explained, but I will). I’m thinking these are maybe some points or closing fees. So you also need to figure in these expenses as well — unless you are just going to assign the deal immediately to another investor.
The only taxes you would owe (if you took title only) would be when you sell it - your portion so that’s easy. Insurance would be insurance on the home. Or you may need to get title insurance which could run $1000 +/-
If you assign the deal, then none of these items would apply. I just talked with another mort. lender and he was very helpful in working these deals.