Hello to everyone, I have a question about subject 2 financing transactions and the use of private or hard money. My questions are the following
- Is it prudent to utlitize hard money in a subject to deal since the investor is not assuming the seller’s loan?
- If it is the case that it is prudent to utilize hard money in a subject 2 transaction, what is the criteria that the hard money lender would use to allocate the funds?