Zaphod,
You need to think about this some more. If two loans have the same loan amount and loan term, there is no way for a loan with a lower interest rate to reduce the principal balance slower than a higher interest rate loan. Run some amortization tables to confirm.
Iron Range,
The facts you stated tell us she DID sell for more than she owed. You paid $28K, she owed $27K. It’s clear that the sale price was greater than her loan balance.
I suppose you could have purchased on a contract for deed, but the details you gave us suggest that the title company created a wrap around mortgage. Because you made a $3K downpayment, you should have only FINANCED $25K. The outcome here is that the amount of the seller financed wrap was less than the amount owed on the underlying loan. You paid more than was owed, the seller just financed less than was owed.
I don’t think the title company created a new note for more than the seller owed. Pull out your loan documents to confirm that you really only financed $25K and not $28K. If they had financed $28K, then your loan balance should have been greater than the underlying loan balance at payoff, provided your loan term was as long or longer than the remaining term on the underlying loan and that your interest rate was greater than or equal to the rate on the underlying loan.
Whether the title company bears any fault here is not for me to say. I don’t see anything illegal or unethical here. Nor do I think the title company had any responsibility to apply your downpayment to the seller’s underlying loan balance.
I do believe the seller was naive. You don’t tell us what your loan terms were, but I suspect that your monthly loan payment was greater than the seller’s monthly payment. On the surface, the seller appeared to be coming out ahead each month. The problem was that the seller’s underlying loan balance was greater than the amount she carried back on her wrap. The seller could have fixed this right away by applying your downpayment to her loan balance, or at least as much as was needed to reduce her loan balance equal the wrap amount.
The title company is a neutral third party. Their function is to do everything needed to facilitate the settlement and to transfer clear title. Perhaps the title company could have made both you and the seller aware of the loan imbalance, but I don’t they had an obligation to do so since they are not acting as legal counsel to either party.
Paying a third party loan servicer would not have fixed this problem either. The loan servicer would have taken your loan payment, distributed the amount needed to pay the underlying mortgage, then sent the difference to the seller. Your loan balance would still be less than the seller’s underlying loan balance.
It could be that the seller was deficient in worldly wisdom or lacked informed judgment. Nevertheless, in my opinion the seller is solely responsible for the situation she is in. On the other hand, as long as the seller is bringing enough cash to the settlement table to deliver clear title, where’s the problem?