Hello, I’ve been looking at this REO, and being curious I have been digging up some records.
I found out that the original mortgage holder owed 335K on their mortgage. Some bank filled a suit for foreclosure, the same bank filled a lien on the property.
And the the next record shows a transfer of deed, and the bank purchasing the property for 81K.
How does that work? I know foreclosures go to auction, but I thought the auction starts at the amount owed (which would be 335K), typically no one would ever bid that, and so the bank receives the property. (I could be wrong in my thinking here)
I don’t understand what the deal is with the bank buying the property for 81K.
Does that mean that this bank bought the property for 81K? The mortgage’s were all from different banks, and I don’t know if this bank bought them all up or what happened really.
If anyone can shed some light on how the process works, that would be great