Hello Everyone…I am new to this site, live in California, and have some questions… Ok, here goes
Seller asking $429,900 (comps around the same)
Seller owes approx. $130,000 on his mortgage, and is willing to finance 1/2 of the purchase price for 3 years.
Could I offer…
Purchase Price: $417,500
Down Payment: $208,750 (obtain from HML)
Balloon Payment: $208,750 (due in 3 years - no pay/int)
and still make a profit?
I’m wanting to accomplish this by paying off HML asap with new refi interest-only loan; Place lease/option tenant/buyer in the property for a nominal option fee to purchase in a year (maybe two) or move…,with a purchase price of around $468,000 (as this is what the highest comp sold for); Produce cash-flow from the difference between what I pay on my new refi loan (1st mortgage) and what my tenant/buyer pays me; And in the end, have the difference between the $468,000 from my tenant/buyer and the $417,000 needed to pay off the 1st (refi) and 2nd (seller) mortgages.
Someone, please tell me if this is do-able, as I had contact with this seller about 3 hours ago, and expect to hear from him tomorrow.
Any help would be greatly appreciated. Also, if this does work…Does anyone have any words of wisdom I could use that would make this seller comfortable with accepting 2nd position with the mortgage?