Is this possible?????need answer ASAP

I have a property under contract that I wanted to flip.
But I had a thought.
Is it possible ,if seller agreed, to deed home overt to me since there is no mortgage, then I would turn around and refinance it myself and pay him that way?
I have a mortgage broker that said he could do it.
The property is appraised at 1.2 million. I got it under contract for $750,000.
I can’t get a mortage for this but is it possible to get the deed and refinance?



If the seller was willing to “trust” you in this transaction it could be done.