Hi, I was told that there was a way, (I’m not sure how)
that if the property went into foreclosure for lets say
$110,000 and was later sold by the bank for $150,000
the overages can be recouped by the person who lost the house
to foreclosure.
So the $40k minus whatever the bank took out for up keep of property etc…
can anyone out there shed some knowledge on this?
Thank u
Kame :banghead