I could really use some help. I am a novice. I don’t understand something regarding property owners who are carrying a mortgage on the property. If they do not redeem the property in said time and the tax lien investor forecloses, what happens to
the mortgage? Since the tax lien is a superior lien does that
mean that the bank loses the money they loaned to the property
owner? OR does the tax lien investor assume that mortgage
somehow?
To answer your question. Go to any search engine and type in tax lien. Happy reading.