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If property is foreclosed on and the proceeds of the sale are greater than the amount owed, does the homeowner (person being foreclosed on) keep the difference?
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When first mortgage holder forecloses, the 2nd note holder (if there is one) gets nothing, right?
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If the first mortgage holder starts the foreclosure process and 2nd mortgage holder buys the 1st, does the 2nd take over the foreclosure proceedings that are in progress or do they need to start a new foreclosure proceeding?
Thanks!