OK, now I understand. Your friend had a contract to buy, and assigned that contract to an assignee. And the assignee filed a lien against the property. And now he can’t perform.
When you assign a purchase agreement, the assignee effectively has a legal contract with the original seller. If not, there is no assignment, and the assignee cannot close.
If the assignee files a lien against the property, the lien must reflect at least the terms of the agreement made with the original seller.
Any variations on the agreement, made between the buyer and his assignee are junior to the original agreement.
For example, if the original purchase agreement had a 14-day close, and the buyer assigned the contract, but changed the closing to a 30-day close, the longer closing date is not enforceable AND the assignee cannot base a lien on the junior terms of his assignment contract.
Meantime an assignee can certainly record a memorandum against a property to protect himself from a crooked wholesaler, whom attempts to offer shop, or assign the contract to more than one assignee at a time. Worse has happened.
Notwithstanding, the original seller has a right to a marketable title, once outside the limits of the original sales contract he signed. That is, once the terms of the contract are abandoned, the seller has a right to a quiet title.
Hope that helps more than confuses.
P.S. This is a matter of negotiation, but I specifically start out disallowing any memorandum or lien to be filed against my property on a sale. If the buyer does it anyway and I find out, I weigh my options, but the deal technically becomes null and void.