i am not 100% clear on the due on sale clause. i figure when the owner sells the property to you the bank gets their money at closing. now if a seller deeded their property to you in the form of a warrenty deed for sufficient amount of “moving fees” can this trigger the banks “due on sale” clause?
Glad to meet you.
I think Bill Bronchick’s article on the DOS pretty well explains it.
I personally have never used a trust, but then again, never had the DOS envoked on any Subject To deal I have ever done.
John $Cash$ Locke