This method is the most widely accepted financial method to approach value.
Purchase Price = $100,000
Closing costs = $3,000
Equity Investment = $20,000
NOI yr1 = 10,000 and escalated at $1,000 per year
yr 0 = $-23,000
yr 1 = $10,000
yr 2 = $11,000
yr 3 = $12,000
yr 4 = $13,000
yr 5 = $14,000+$33,373.51
Beginning Year 6 Reversion
Mortgage Balance = $73,819.15 @ end of 5 years
Selling Expenses = (3%*110,507.89) $3,315.23
- Value = $110,507.89 (100,000*1.02^5 or 2% per year for 5 years)
= Reversion Value = $33,373.51
The goal is to take all these cash flows and discount them to a present value.
Discount Rate = 8%
yr 0 = $-23,000
yr 1 = $10,000
yr 2 = $11,000
yr 3 = $12,000
yr 4 = $13,000
yr 5 = $14,000+$33,373.51
Net Preset Value = $47,012.98
Required Investment = $23,000.00
Cash On Cash = 15.3714%
Internal Rate of Return = 51.93%
The decision in this example is easy to see. It’s a good deal because the NPV is higher than the initial investment. This should not be considered normal. It will differ with your assumptions about a discount rate or risk associated with (not a cap rate), location, use…etc. I used 8% percent but you may want to adjust it to your yearly required return. Say 10% but ,your NPV will drop like wise as well as your IRR. You could discount every cash flow at a different rate. You may want to use a different discount rate for the reversion. The thinking behind it is that the property is older now and there for, will sell at a higher cap rate. This is the most accurate way to value cash flow…ie “Discounted Cash Flow Analysis”
This is no hocus pocus!!!