I have a few questions about a property in IL. The property currently includes an adjacent lot. The borrower would like to refinance his property without the lot so he can later sell just the lot. I’m not sure how this would work or how I should go about this. If I did his refinance with the lot and he later sold it, then would the money have to go towards the mortgage?
Is the property owned outright? if so then you just resurvey both lots seperately and viola they are seperate. If there is a lien on the property then what you need to do is contact the lender and ask them for a partial lien release.
thank you christopher!